I have a question regarding the dominant ideology theory and the theory (or whatever) of opposites.
Back in the eighties the "right-wing" governments in South America did not prohibit Marx from being read in the universities. He was not part of the state cirriculum, but also not on the banned list. However, John Stuart Mill with his ideas about the "marketplace of ideas" and "free speech" was prohibited.
So, does this mean taht:
a) these governments were really "left-wing"
b) good ol' Karl was actually a "right-winger" and J.S. Mill a "left-winger"
I await your answers.